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TwoBitHack
06-16-2006, 07:37 AM
I have recently several interviews / commentaries with Eli Roth in which he recounted his experience with unions during the production of CABIN FEVER.

He was making the film with a non-union crew in a right to work state with a budget of approximately $1.5 million.

Roth said the unions found out about his production and forced him to work under a union contract.

How does that work?

How do they have the authority to require a non-union production to work under their rules?

Anyone know?

jimjimgrande
06-16-2006, 08:58 AM
a) I wouldn't consider Eli Roth a reliable narrator

but that aside

b) it's often the case that union guys will take non-union work because that's all there is. The union finds out about it, then goes to the UPM or Line Producer and says you nned to pay your guys union rates. If you don't, nobody's going to show up to work tomorrow. And when you're working with a tight budget and schedule, you can't afford any shutdowns, so you strike up some kind of deal. That's how that works.

odocoileus
06-16-2006, 09:43 AM
What jimjimgrande said.

Also, unions will send members to the location to picket and/or harass and disrupt the production.

TwoBitHack
06-16-2006, 10:00 AM
So it is pressure to agree, not an iron clad ability to legally force them to do it?

pconsidine
06-16-2006, 10:28 AM
It's the unions' only power - the power to control workers. That power only wanes when there's a substantial non-union alternative (as in auto manufacturing and other industries).